20-06-2010, 12:16 | #11 |
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For pain to have a purpose, doesn't that purpose have to be 'known' beforehand? It might have an effect or consequences that are not known or expected up-front, but I don't think it can have an unknown purpose (unless the purpose, of course, is the Dominant's, but then we can reduce everything to the context of Top/bottom, D/s if we want... ). Surely a purpose has to be intended? I don't take pain with any specific intention in mind, and so pain is its own purpose. And it can't both be itself and have itself. Ermmmm.....
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